IB Maths AA HL Topic 5 — Calculus Paper 1 & 2 HL ~11 min read

Differentiating & Integrating Maclaurin Series

A Maclaurin series IS just a polynomial (with infinitely many terms). So you can differentiate it term-by-term and the result is the Maclaurin series of the function’s derivative. Same for integration: integrating term-by-term gives the Maclaurin series of an antiderivative, plus a constant of integration to determine. This builds new series quickly from booklet ones — without going through the general formula every time.

📘 What you need to know

The term-by-term differentiation rule

Term-by-term differentiation If f(x) = a₀ + a₁x + a₂x² + a₃x³ + …, then f′(x) = a₁ + 2a₂x + 3a₃x² + 4a₄x³ + …
Term-by-term differentiation: ln(1+x) → 1/(1+x) ln(1+x) = x+ −x²/2+ x³/3+ −x⁴/4+ … DIFFERENTIATE EACH TERM 1/(1+x) = 1+ −x+ + −x³+ … ⟹ 1/(1+x) = 1 − x + x² − x³ + x⁴ − … (the geometric series, also obtainable from the binomial expansion of (1+x)⁻¹)
Each xn/n term in ln(1+x) differentiates to ±xn−1 (the n‘s cancel). Integration runs the same diagram in reverse: integrate each derivative term and add +c at the end.

The term-by-term integration rule

Term-by-term integration ∫(a₀ + a₁x + a₂x² + …) dx = c + a₀x + a₁2x² + a₂3x³ + …

The constant of integration c is determined by the known value at x = 0. If integrating g(x) recovers f(x) (so g = f′), evaluating the integrated series at x = 0 gives c = f(0) — every other term vanishes.

Two paired operations

Differentiate
anxnn·anxn−1
Power drops by 1, coefficient multiplied by old power. Constant term disappears. No +c.
Integrate
anxnann+1xn+1
Power increases by 1, coefficient divided by new power. Always add a +c at the end and determine from f(0).
Cross-check pairs: (sin x, cos x), (ex, ex), (ln(1+x), 1/(1+x)), (arctan x, 1/(1+x²)). Differentiate the first to get the second; integrate the second (with appropriate c) to get the first.

🧭 Recipe — using differentiation or integration

  1. Identify which technique applies: do you want the derivative or antiderivative of a function whose series you already know?
  2. Write the known series from the formula booklet (or one you’ve derived earlier) with enough terms for the target accuracy.
  3. For differentiation: apply d/dx(xn) = nxn−1 to every term. The constant term vanishes.
  4. For integration: apply ∫xn dx = xn+1/(n+1) to every term. Add a single +c.
  5. Determine c from the value of the antiderivative at x = 0 (which equals c). Simplify the resulting series.

Worked examples

WE 1

Differentiate ln(1+x) series to derive 1/(1+x) series

(a) Write down the derivative of ln(1+x). (b) Hence use the Maclaurin series for ln(1+x) to derive the Maclaurin series for 1/(1+x) up to and including the term in x⁴.

(a) Derivative of ln(1+x) d/dx [ln(1+x)] = 1/(1+x) (b) Booklet series for ln(1+x) ln(1+x) = x – x²/2 + x³/3 – x⁴/4 + x⁵/5 – … Differentiate each term using d/dx (xⁿ) = n xⁿ⁻¹ d/dx (x) = 1 d/dx (-x²/2) = -x d/dx (x³/3) = x² d/dx (-x⁴/4) = -x³ d/dx (x⁵/5) = x⁴ Collect — by part (a), this is the series for 1/(1+x) 11 + x ≈ 1 − x + x² − x³ + x notice the n’s cancel beautifully: xⁿ/n → xⁿ⁻¹ via differentiation. The result is the geometric series 1/(1+x) = 1 − x + x² − x³ + …, also obtainable from the binomial expansion of (1+x)⁻¹.
WE 2

Integrate cos x series to derive sin x series

Use the Maclaurin series for cos x from the formula booklet to derive the Maclaurin series for sin x by integration, up to and including the term in x⁵.

Step 1 — note sin x is an antiderivative of cos x d/dx (sin x) = cos x, so ∫ cos x dx = sin x + c Step 2 — booklet series for cos x cos x = 1 – x²/2! + x⁴/4! – x⁶/6! + … Step 3 — integrate term by term ∫ 1 dx = x ∫ -x²/2! dx = -x³/(3 · 2!) = -x³/6 = -x³/3! ∫ x⁴/4! dx = x⁵/(5 · 4!) = x⁵/120 = x⁵/5! Step 4 — apply IC: sin(0) = 0, so c = 0 sin x = x – x³/3! + x⁵/5! + c At x = 0: sin(0) = 0 + 0 + 0 + c = c, so c = 0. sin xxx³3! + x5! elegant pattern: integrating x^(2k)/(2k)! gives x^(2k+1)/(2k+1)!. The factorials in the denominators grow correctly. Matches the booklet series for sin x ✓.
WE 3

Integrate 1/(1−x) series to derive ln(1−x) series

Given that 1/(1 − x) = 1 + x + x² + x³ + … (the geometric series), use integration to derive the Maclaurin series for ln(1 − x) up to and including the term in x⁵.

Step 1 — find an antiderivative of 1/(1-x) ∫ 1/(1-x) dx = -ln|1-x| + c So if we integrate the series, we’ll get -ln(1-x) + c (for 1-x > 0). Step 2 — integrate the geometric series term by term ∫ (1 + x + x² + x³ + x⁴) dx = x + x²/2 + x³/3 + x⁴/4 + x⁵/5 + c Step 3 — match to -ln(1-x) -ln(1-x) = x + x²/2 + x³/3 + x⁴/4 + x⁵/5 + c At x = 0: -ln(1) = 0, so c = 0. ⟹ -ln(1-x) = x + x²/2 + x³/3 + x⁴/4 + x⁵/5 Step 4 — multiply by -1 ln(1 − x) ≈ −xx²2x³3x4x5 cross-check: substitute -x into the booklet ln(1+x) series. That gives the same result. Either method works — pick whichever is faster.
WE 4

Differentiate 1/(1+x) to derive 1/(1+x)² series

Use the geometric series 1/(1+x) = 1 − x + x² − x³ + x⁴ − x⁵ + … and term-by-term differentiation to derive the Maclaurin series for 1/(1+x)² up to and including the term in x⁴.

Step 1 — differentiate the function d/dx [1/(1+x)] = d/dx [(1+x)⁻¹] = -(1+x)⁻² = -1/(1+x)² Step 2 — differentiate the series term by term d/dx [1 – x + x² – x³ + x⁴ – x⁵] = 0 – 1 + 2x – 3x² + 4x³ – 5x⁴ = -1 + 2x – 3x² + 4x³ – 5x⁴ Step 3 — equate and solve -1/(1+x)² = -1 + 2x – 3x² + 4x³ – 5x⁴ Multiply both sides by -1: 1(1 + x ≈ 1 − 2x + 3x² − 4x³ + 5x verify by binomial: (1+x)⁻² has coefficients C(-2, n)·1^(-2-n). C(-2, 0)=1, C(-2, 1)=-2, C(-2, 2)= (-2)(-3)/2=3, … → 1 – 2x + 3x² – 4x³ + … ✓ matches.
WE 5

Verify ex is its own derivative at the series level

Use term-by-term differentiation of the Maclaurin series for ex to confirm that ex is its own derivative.

Step 1 — booklet series for e^x e^x = 1 + x + x²/2! + x³/3! + x⁴/4! + … Step 2 — differentiate each term d/dx (1) = 0 (constant disappears) d/dx (x) = 1 d/dx (x²/2!) = 2x/2! = x/1! = x d/dx (x³/3!) = 3x²/3! = x²/2! d/dx (x⁴/4!) = 4x³/4! = x³/3! Step 3 — collect d/dx (e^x) = 1 + x + x²/2! + x³/3! + … = e^x ✓ d/dx(ex) = ex   ✓ (every term reproduces the term before it) the trick is n/n! = 1/(n-1)!. Differentiating xⁿ/n! gives n·xⁿ⁻¹/n! = xⁿ⁻¹/(n-1)!. So term-by-term, the series shifts down by one and the n-th coefficient becomes the (n-1)-th coefficient — leaving the series unchanged.
WE 6

Approximate a definite integral with no closed form

The integral ∫₀0.5 cos(x²) dx has no elementary antiderivative. Use the Maclaurin series for cos(x²) and term-by-term integration to estimate its value to 4 decimal places.

Step 1 — get the Maclaurin series for cos(x²) cos x = 1 – x²/2! + x⁴/4! – x⁶/6! + … Substitute x²: cos(x²) = 1 – x⁴/2 + x⁸/24 – x¹²/720 + … Step 2 — integrate term by term ∫ cos(x²) dx ≈ x – x⁵/(5·2) + x⁹/(9·24) – … + c = x – x⁵/10 + x⁹/216 – … + c Step 3 — evaluate from 0 to 0.5 ∫₀^0.5 cos(x²) dx ≈ [x – x⁵/10 + x⁹/216]₀^0.5 = 0.5 – (0.5)⁵/10 + (0.5)⁹/216 – 0 = 0.5 – 0.003125 + 0.00000904 ≈ 0.4969 (to 4 d.p.) ∫₀0.5 cos(x²) dx ≈ 0.4969 the actual value (computed numerically) is 0.49688403, so the three-term approximation matches to 7+ decimal places. This technique works for many “non-elementary” integrals — error functions, Fresnel integrals, sine/cosine integrals, etc.

💡 Top tips

⚠ Common mistakes

Up next (final note of the chapter): Maclaurin Series from Differential Equations. When you have dy/dx = g(x, y) and an initial condition y(0), you can build the Maclaurin series of the solution y = f(x) term by term — using implicit differentiation to find each successive derivative y′(0), y″(0), y‴(0), …. This works even when the DE has no closed-form solution.

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